<b>And the Lord spoke unto Moses and Aaron in the land of Egypt, saying (Exod. 12:1).</b> Is it not a fact that He spoke only to Moses? Why, then, does the Scripture say <i>unto Moses and Aaron</i>? To indicate that just as Moses was included in the revelation, so too was Aaron. Where do we learn that He did not speak to Aaron? From the verse <i>And it came to pass on the day that the Lord spoke unto Moses in the land of Egypt</i> (Exod. 6:28), that is, to Moses and not to Aaron. Similarly in the above verse He spoke to Moses but not to Aaron. Why did He not speak to Aaron? In order (to enhance) Moses’ honor. However, if that were so, would not Aaron’s honor be diminished? No. For they were equals. You find that whenever two things are mentioned together they are of equal importance. <i>On that day the heaven and the earth were finished</i> (Gen. 2:1), and they are equal. <i>Honor thy father and mother</i> (Exod. 20:12), and they are equal. <i>Joshua the son of Nun and Caleb the son of Jephunneh</i> (Num. 14:38), and they were equals. Similarly, Moses and Aaron were equals.
<i>In the land of Egypt</i> refers to the territory outside of the capital of Egypt. You find that the Shekhinah does not appear in the capital city of Egypt, for it is stated: <i>And Moses said unto him: “As soon as I am out of the city, I will spread forth my hand”</i> (Exod. 9:29). Why was it necessary to specify all <i>the land of Egypt</i>? Because all of Egypt was filled with idols. Hence it is written <i>in the land of Egypt</i> and not simply “in Egypt.”
Why did the Shekhinah appear <i>in the land of Egypt</i>? To teach us that prior to the selection of the land of Israel, all lands merited the revelation of the Holy One, blessed be He, but that after the land of Israel was selected, all other lands were disqualified. Similarly, before Jerusalem was chosen, the entire territory of Israel merited the revelation of the Divine Word, but after Jerusalem was selected, the Divine Word forsook the remainder of the land. Likewise, before the Temple was designated, the city of Jerusalem was considered suitable for the words of the Shekhinah, but after the establishment of the Temple, it removed itself from the rest of Jerusalem, as it is written: <i>For the Lord hath chosen Zion, He hath desired it for His habitation</i> (Ps. 132:13). And it says also: <i>That is My resting place forever; here will I dwell; for I have desired it</i> (ibid., v. 14). Prior to the selection of Aaron, every Israelite merited priesthood, as it is said: <i>It is an everlasting covenant of salt</i> (Num. 18:19), but after he was selected the other Israelites were deemed unfit for priesthood, as it is said: <i>And it shall be unto him, and to his seed after him, the covenant of an everlasting priesthood</i> (ibid. 25:13). Before David was chosen, all Israelites were eligible for kingship, but after the selection of David, all Israelites lost the right of kingship, as it is said: <i>Ye have nothing to do with us to build a house unto our God; but we ourselves together will build unto the Lord, the God of Israel</i> (Ezra 4:3).
Why did He speak to the prophets outside the land of Israel? Because of the merit of the patriarchs, as it is stated: <i>A voice is heard in Ramah</i> (Jer. 31:15). And after that it is written: <i>Thus saith the Lord: “Refrain thy voice from weeping”</i> (ibid., v. 16). Even outside the land (however), He spoke to the prophets only in places that were ritually clean, as in the case of Daniel: <i>As I was by the side of the great river, which is Tigris</i> (Dan. 10:4), and also: <i>And I was by the stream Ulai</i> (ibid. 8:3).<sup class="footnote-marker">6</sup><i class="footnote">The rivers offered the opportunity to obtain ritual cleanliness.</i> Ezekiel said to Him: <i>As I was among the captives by the river Chebar</i> (Ezek. 1:1). This was the Tigris. When did He speak to him? Outside the land only after he had previously spoken to him in the land, as it is said: <i>Rise, go forth into the plain, and I will there speak with thee</i> (ibid. 3:22).