Why Cursing a Parent Is Graver Than Striking One

"And he that curses his father" (Exodus 21:17), but not his father's father; "his mother," but not his mother's mother; "his father," but not one in doubt; "his mother," but not one in doubt. "He that curses his father and his mother shall surely be put to death." One might think he is not liable until he curses both of them together; therefore Scripture says, "who curses his father or his mother" (Leviticus 20:9), even one of them. Then why does it say "and he that curses his father and his mother"? One might think a convert woman, whose conception was not in holiness but whose birth was in holiness, would make her child liable for cursing his mother; therefore Scripture says "he that curses his father and his mother": the one who is liable for cursing his father is liable for cursing his mother, and the one who is not liable for cursing his father is not liable for cursing his mother. One might think that if he cursed them after death he would not be liable. And it would follow logically: if striking, which applies to all, does not make one liable after death, then cursing, which does not apply to all, surely should not make one liable after death. Therefore Scripture says, "his father and his mother he has cursed, his blood is upon him" (Leviticus 20:9), even after death. One might think that even if he cursed them by a substitute name he would be liable. It says here "and he that curses his father and his mother," and it says there, "a man who curses his God" (Leviticus 24:15): just as there it is by the Name, so here it is by the Name. "He shall surely be put to death." We do not know by what death this one is to die; therefore Scripture says, "his blood is upon him" (Leviticus 20:9), and elsewhere it says, "they shall stone them with stones, their blood is upon them" (Leviticus 20:27): just as "their blood" stated there is by stoning, so "his blood" stated here is by stoning. Thus we find a stringency in speech beyond deed, for the one who strikes is put to death by strangulation, while the one who curses is put to death by stoning. How do we know that if you could not put him to death by stoning you may put him to death by any of the deaths, whether lighter or more severe? Scripture says, "he shall surely be put to death," in any case.