Can it not be deduced a fortiori? viz.: If a Hebrew maidservant, who goes out with (the appearance of pubertal) signs, does not go out with (loss of) organ prominences, then a Hebrew bondsman, who does not go out with signs, how much more so should he not go out with (loss of) organ prominences! — No, this (that she does not go out) may be true of a Hebrew maidservant, who was not sold for thieving — wherefore she does not go out with (loss of) organ prominences — as opposed to a Hebrew bondsman, who was sold for thieving — wherefore he does go out with (loss of) organ prominences. It must, therefore, be written "the Hebrew man or the Hebrew woman" — to liken the first to the second, viz.: Just as she does not go out with organ prominences, so, he.
Can it not be deduced a fortiori
Mekhilta Tractate Nezikin 1:22