Why Aaron Shared the Word but Moses Spoke Alone

Yalkut Shimoni on Torah 179:2

Curated by Arthur·Told by Maggid·

(Exodus 6:28) "And it came to pass on the day the LORD spoke to Moses in the land of Egypt." Since it is said, "And the LORD spoke to Moses and to Aaron in the land of Egypt," I might have understood that the divine speech came to Moses and to Aaron alike. But when it says, "And it came to pass on the day the LORD spoke to Moses in the land of Egypt," this teaches that the speech came to Moses and not to Aaron. If so, what does Scripture intend by saying "to Moses and to Aaron"? Only to teach that just as Moses was fit to receive the divine words, so too was Aaron fit to receive the divine utterances. And why did He not speak with him directly? For the honor of Moses. You therefore find that Aaron is excluded from all the divine utterances in the Torah, except for three places, since there it was not possible to exclude him.

Themes

MosesPriesthoodProphecy

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