<b>And the Lord said unto Moses and Aaron: “This is the ordinance of the passover” (Exod. 12:43).</b> There are chapters of the Torah in which a general statement is made at the beginning of the chapter, and a particular statement is made at its end. <i>And ye shall be unto me a kingdom of priests</i> (Exod. 19:6) is a particular statement, while the verse <i>These are the words which thou shalt speak unto the children of Israel</i> (ibid.) is a general statement. <i>This is the statue of the law</i> (Num. 19:2) is a general statement, while the verse <i>That they bring thee a red heifer</i> (ibid.) is a particular statement. <i>This is the ordinance of the Passover</i> (Exod. 12:43) is a general statement, whereas <i>There shall no alien eat thereof</i> (ibid.) is a particular statement. Whenever a general statement is followed by a particular one, the general statement does not include more than is contained in the particular.<sup class="footnote-marker">10</sup><i class="footnote">The fourth of the thirteen rules of interpretation developed by R. Ishmael.</i> <i>This is the ordinance of the Passover</i>. This passage deals with the Passover in Egypt. How then do we know about Passover in subsequent generations? Scripture informs us of this in the verse <i>According to all the statutes of it, and according to all the ordinances thereof, shall ye keep it</i> (Num. 9:3). <i>There shall no alien eat thereof</i> (Exod. 12:43) alludes also to a renegade Jew and a Gentile. <i>Every man’s servant that is bought for money</i> (ibid., v. 44). (The verse states:) <i>Every man’s servant</i>. Does this mean that the servant of a woman or of a child is excluded? Scripture says: <i>That is bought for money</i>, which implies (every servant that was purchased).
<i>A sojourner and a hired servant shall not eat thereof, no matter who owns him</i> (ibid., v. 45). <i>A sojourner</i> refers to an alien who is not an idolater, but who commits other forbidden acts. <i>A hired servant</i> alludes to one who serves idols. Hence, just as the words <i>a sojourner and a hired servant</i>, etc., mentioned in the chapter on the paschal lamb disqualify an uncircumcised man from eating the paschal lamb, so does the phrase <i>A sojourner and a hired servant</i> used with reference to the <i>terumah</i> teach us that an uncircumcised man is disqualified from eating the <i>terumah</i> (the priest’s share of the crop).
<i>In one house shall it be eaten</i> (ibid., v. 46). However, it is written elsewhere: <i>Upon the houses wherein they shall eat it</i> (ibid. v. 7). From this verse we learn that the paschal lamb may be eaten in two places. How am I to interpret the phrase <i>In one house</i>? It may be interpreted to mean (that it may be eaten) by one group of people. How does it happen then that one may eat the paschal lamb in two places? For example, if men are seated inside a house when a beam splits above their heads, they are compelled to go outside to eat it, and if they are outside when it commences to rain, they are forced to go inside. Hence they may eat it in two places. If this (is so), what is meant by <i>Thou shalt not carry forth aught of the flesh abroad out of the house</i> (ibid., v. 46)? This means you may not carry it out from the group. <i>Thou shalt not carry forth aught of the flesh</i> refers to the meat on the outside of the bone and not to that which is within the bone (i.e., the marrow). <i>Neither shall ye break a bone thereof</i> (ibid.) indicates that you shall not break the bone of the paschal sacrifice, but that (does not apply) to the bones of any other sacrifices of less sanctity. It is not a transgression of the commandment: Neither shall you break a bone <i>thereof. All the congregation of Israel shall keep it</i> (ibid., v. 47). Why is this said? Since Scripture states: <i>Draw out, and take you lambs according to your families</i> (Exod. 12:21), (you might think that the paschal lamb can be brought [to the Temple] only by a family group. Nevertheless) this verse informs us that the Passover offering of subsequent generations may be brought by mixed groups.
<i>And when a stranger shall sojourn with thee, and will keep the Passover to the Lord</i> (ibid., v. 48). Does this mean that a stranger who is converted should offer a paschal sacrifice at the first opportunity? Yes, for Scripture says: <i>And he shall be as one that is born in the land</i> (ibid.). Therefore, just as one born in the land offers his sacrifice on the fourteenth day, so the proselyte should do so on the fourteenth day. If he is converted, however, between the two Passovers,<sup class="footnote-marker">11</sup><i class="footnote">That is, between the fifteenth day of Nisan and the fourteenth day of Iyar, the second Passover (Num. 19:10).</i> he should offer the sacrifice on the second Passover. <i>Let all his males be circumcised, and then let him come near and keep it</i> (ibid.). This refers to the circumcision of free males and the circumcision of slaves, (the absence of which) prevents him (from offering the paschal sacrifice). If one wishes to perform the two rituals, the commandment of circumcision and the commandment of the paschal lamb, which takes precedence? <i>Let all his males be circumcised</i> is stated first, and that is followed by <i>And let him come near and keep it. One law shall be to him that is home-born</i> (ibid., v. 49). This verse declares that the home-born and the convert are equal with regard to all the commandments inscribed in the Torah.