Every Bought Slave Must Be Circumcised Before Eating the Passover

"And every man's slave... and you shall circumcise him" (Exodus 12:44). This teaches that a man circumcises a man's slave against his will. One might think a man also circumcises a man's children against their will; the text says "a man's slave": a man circumcises a Hebrew against his will [as a slave], but he does not circumcise a man's children against their will. I have here only male slaves; from where do I include female slaves? The text says "every man's slave." "And you shall circumcise him, then shall he eat of it." If Scripture is speaking of the slave, it has already said, "and no uncircumcised person shall eat of it" (Exodus 12:48). Why then does the text say "and you shall circumcise him, then shall he eat of it"? This refers to his master: if he had slaves who were not circumcised or female slaves who had not immersed, they hinder him from eating the Passover. "And every slave." From here you say: a convert who died and had slaves, both adult and minor, who seized themselves as free persons, from where do we know their status? The text says "every slave": a slave over whom his master has authority is meant, excluding this one, over whom a master has no authority. "A man's slave": I have here only a man's slave; from where do I include a woman's slave? The text says "bought with money." I have here only one whom he purchased; from where do I include one whom he inherited or who was given to him as a gift? The text says "every slave." If so, why does it say "bought with money"? It teaches that slaves are acquired with money. One might think that even a minor slave hinders him from eating the Passover; the text says "a man's slave": a man's slaves hinder him from eating the Passover, but a minor's slaves do not hinder him from eating the Passover. One might think he is forbidden to eat but permitted to slaughter and to dash the blood; the text says "then shall he eat of it," and there it says, "then let him come near and keep it" (Exodus 12:48). "Then" and "then" are an analogy by identical wording [gezeira shava]: just as the "then" said here means he is forbidden to eat, so the "then" said there means he is forbidden to eat; and just as the "then" said there means he is forbidden to perform the service, so the "then" said here means he is forbidden to perform the service. I have here only the Passover of Egypt; from where do I include the Passover of the generations? The text says "ordinance."