"and Moses said to his father-in-law, etc.": They said: This is what Yehudah of Kfar Acco asked R. Gamliel: Why did Moses see fit to say (Ibid.) "Because the people come to me"? (i.e., Does this not seem vain in him?) R. Gamliel: What else should he say? His concluding (Ibid.) "to enquire (concerning the law) of G–d" suffices (to free him of this charge).
When Moses Explained to Yithro Why the People Came to Him for
Mekhilta Tractate Amalek 4:3