Similarly (II Kings 21:12) "Therefore, thus said the L–rd the G–d of Israel." Is it not already written (Jeremiah 32:27) "the "God of all flesh"? Why, then, "the G–d of Israel"? It is with Israel that He especially unifies His name.
God Rules the Whole World, but He Associates His Name Specifically
Mekhilta Tractate Kaspa 4:16