(Exodus 22:15) "And if a man entice a virgin, etc.": Scripture comes to teach about an enticed girl that knass (penalty [viz. 16]) is paid for her. (But why is the verse needed?) Can it not be derived by reason, viz. "A ravished girl is in her father's jurisdiction, and an enticed girl is in her father's jurisdiction. If we have learned that knass is paid for the first (viz. Devarim 22:28-29) then knass should also be paid for the second.