R. Yonathan says: This (derivation) is not needed. Is it not already written (Ibid. 34) "The owner (whether man or woman) shall pay", (Ibid. 22:5) "Pay shall pay the lighter (whether man or woman) of the fire." Why, then, is it written (29) "a man or a woman"? For its learning (i.e., to equate a woman with a man in all other instances where "a man" is written.)
Rabbi Yonathan's Answer Is That the Phrase Serves a Broader Teaching
Mekhilta Tractate Nezikin 6:4