"If men strive together": This tells me only of (a quarrel between)men. Whence do I derive (the same for) (a quarrel between) a man and a woman or (between) one woman and another? From "together" — in any event.
"a man and his brother": to exclude slaves, who have no "brotherhood." These are the words of R. Yehudah.
"and the wife of the one draw near to rescue her husband … and she send forth her hand and seize his privy parts": Rebbi says: Because we find among the mazzikin (those who cause injury) in the Torah that non-intent (to injure) is equated with intent (vis-à-vis liability for payment), I might think that here, too, it is so; it is, therefore, written "and the wife of one draw near, etc." (connoting intent). I might think that (she is not liable) unless her intent is to shame him; it is, therefore, written "and she seize." From "and she send forth her hand," do I not know that she seizes? What, then, is the intent of "and she seize"? To teach that if her intent were to injure and not to shame she is likewise liable.