Whether a Master May Give His Hebrew Servant a Wife

Yalkut Shimoni on Torah 312:1

(Exodus 21:4) "If his master gives him a wife." Is this permission, or is it perhaps an obligation? Scripture teaches, saying, "If he comes in by himself, etc." (Exodus 21:3) - permission and not obligation; these are the words of Rabbi Ishmael. "If his master gives him a wife" - one who is designated for him, so that she should not be like an ownerless maidservant. "If his master gives him a wife" - Scripture speaks of a Canaanite maidservant. Or is it perhaps of a Hebrew woman? When it says, "the woman and her children shall belong to her master" (Exodus 21:4), behold, Scripture speaks of a Canaanite maidservant. "And she bears him sons." I have here only sons and daughters; from where do I include one of indeterminate sex and one of double sex? Scripture teaches, saying, "the woman and her children shall belong to her master" - in any case. Rabbi Nathan says: There is no need for Scripture to say "and she bears him," except to include the master who comes upon his maidservant, that her children are slaves.

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