The Pierced Servant and Who May Be Given a Maidservant

Another interpretation: "And he shall go out by himself" - why is it stated? Because it says, "Six years he shall serve" (Exodus 21:2), I have here only one who serves six years, regarding whom one follows the practice stated in the passage. From where do we learn the pierced servant? Scripture teaches, saying, "and he shall go out by himself," to include the pierced servant. Rabbi Isaac says: This is not needed. For if the one who serves six years, whose departure Scripture restricted, is nevertheless treated by the practice stated in the passage, then the pierced servant, whose departure Scripture did not restrict, surely is treated by the practice stated in the passage. "If his master gives him a wife" - one who sells himself: his master does not hand him a Canaanite maidservant. Rabbi Eliezer says: his master does hand him a Canaanite maidservant. What is the reason of the first teacher? The Merciful One restricted, regarding one whom the court sold, "If his master gives him a wife" - to him, and not to one who sells himself. And the other holds: that phrase is needed for one sold against his will. And the other learns it from "for he has been worth double the wages of a hired man to you" (Deuteronomy 15:18). As it is taught: "for he has been worth double the wages of a hired man, your servant" - a hired man works only by day, but a Hebrew servant works both by day and by night. Could it enter your mind that a Hebrew servant works by day and by night? But it already says, "for it is good for him with you" (Deuteronomy 15:16) - with you in food, with you in drink. And Rabbi Isaac said: from here we learn that his master hands him a Canaanite maidservant. And the other holds: if from there, I would have said this applies with his consent, but against his will I might say not; therefore Scripture informs us. One who has a brother of any kind binds his brother's wife to levirate marriage, except for one born of a maidservant or of a gentile woman. What is the reason? As it is written, "the woman and her children shall belong to her master," and concerning a gentile woman it is written, "for he will turn away your son from following Me" (Deuteronomy 7:4) - your son who comes from a gentile man is called your son, but your son who comes from a gentile woman is not called your son but her son. But this is written concerning the seven nations. "For he will turn away" - to include all who turn away. And both verses are needed: for had Scripture taught only the maidservant, it is because she has no lineage, but the gentile woman I might say not; and had it taught only the gentile woman, it is because she has no share in the commandments, but the maidservant I might say not; therefore both are needed.