(Ibid. 19) "For whoever eats leavening, that soul shall be cut off": What is the intent of this? From (Ibid. 15) "Whoever eats chametz shall be cut off," I would know only of chametz. Whence would I derive (the same for) se'or? It is, therefore, written "For whoever eats leavening, that soul shall be cut off."—But even if it were not written, I would know it a fortiori, viz. If chametz, which does not cause other (foods) to become chametz, is liable to kareth, how much more so, se'or, which does cause other (foods) to become chametz!—No, this may be true of chametz, which is fit for eating—as opposed to se'or, which is not fit for eating, wherefore it should not be liable to kareth. It is, therefore, written "For whoever eats leavening, that soul shall be cut off." Let the verse for se'or suffice a fortiori for chametz, viz.: If se'or, which is not fit for eating, is liable to kareth, how much more so chametz, which is fit for eating!—No, this may be true of leaven, which causes other foods to become chametz—as opposed to chametz, which does not cause other foods to become chametz. The two verses, then, must be written. Otherwise, we would not know (the two laws).