"and he shall go out alone": We are hereby apprised that a (Canaanite) bondswoman does not require a get (a divorce) from a Jew. Whence do we derive the same (i.e., that she does not require a get) for a Hebrew maid-servant who cohabited with a (Canaanite) bondsman? From (Leviticus 25:49) "From them (the Canaanites) shall you buy a man-servant and a maid-servant." A man-servant is being likened to a maid-servant, and a maid-servant to a man-servant. Just as a maid-servant does not require a get from a (Hebrew) man-servant, so a Hebrew maid-servant does not require a get from a man-servant.