"the woman and her children": What is the intent of this? That her children are (slaves) as she is. This tells me only of a bondswoman, that her children are as she is. Whence do I derive the same for a gentile woman (that her children are regarded as hers and not as the father's)? R. Yishmael was wont to say: It follows inductively, viz.: Just as the children of a Canaanite bondswoman, who is not betrothed to any man, are considered hers, so, the child of any woman who is not betrothed to any man (i.e., a woman with whom betrothal is not binding) is considered hers. And who is that: The child of a gentile woman.