Can it not be deduced a fortiori? viz.: If a Hebrew maidservant, who goes out with (the appearance of pubertal) signs, does not go out with (loss of) organ prominences, then a Hebrew bondsman, who does not go out with signs, how much more so should he not go out with (loss of) organ prominences!—No, this (that she does not go out) may be true of a Hebrew maidservant, who was not sold for thieving—wherefore she does not go out with (loss of) organ prominences—as opposed to a Hebrew bondsman, who was sold for thieving—wherefore he does go out with (loss of) organ prominences. It must, therefore, be written "the Hebrew man or the Hebrew woman"—to liken the first to the second, viz.: Just as she does not go out with organ prominences, so, he.