(Exodus 12:1) "And the L–rd spoke to Moses and to Aaron in the land of Egypt, saying": I might think that both Aaron and Moses were being addressed; it is, therefore, written (Exodus 6:28) "And it was on the day that the L–rd spoke to Moses in the land of Egypt": Only Moses was being addressed and not Aaron. If so, why is it written "to Moses and to Aaron"? We are hereby taught that just as Moses was "included" in the words (i.e., by their being spoken to him), so, Aaron was included in the words (i.e., by his "overhearing" them). And why did He not speak (directly) to him? In deference to Moses. We find Aaron, then, to be excluded from all the (direct) addresses in the Torah except for three (Leviticus 10:8, (Numbers 18:1), Numbers 18:8), where it is impossible (to understand otherwise).
The Lord Spoke to Moses and to Aaron
(Exodus 12:1) "And the L–rd spoke to Moses and to Aaron in the land of Egypt, saying": I might think that both Aaron and Moses were being addressed; it is, therefore, written (Exodus 6:28) "And it was on the day that the L–rd spoke to Moses in the land of Egypt": Only Moses was being addressed and not Aaron. If so, why is it written "to Moses and to Aaron"? We are hereby taught that just as Moses was "included" in the words (i.e., by their being spoken to him), so, Aaron was included in the words (i.e., by his "overhearing" them). And why did He not speak (directly) to him? In deference to Moses. We find Aaron, then, to be excluded from all the (direct) addresses in the Torah except for three (Leviticus 10:8, Numbers 18:1, Numbers 18:8), where it is impossible (to understand otherwise).