Nothing Leavened and What Counts as the Bread of Affliction

"You shall eat nothing leavened" (Exodus 12:20) - this includes Babylonian kutach, Median beer, Edomite vinegar, and Egyptian zithom. One might think one would be liable for them; therefore Scripture says "leaven" - just as leaven is a complete species, these are excluded, for they are not a complete species. Why then are they mentioned? To place upon them a negative commandment. One might think a person fulfills his obligation with dough of rice; therefore Scripture says "bread" (Deuteronomy 16:3) - just as the "bread" stated elsewhere (Numbers 15:19) is of the five species, so the "bread" stated here is of the five species. Another interpretation: "unleavened cakes, for it was not leavened" (Exodus 12:39) - matzah that is capable of coming to a state of matzah and of leavening; this excludes dough of rice, which does not come to leavening. One might think a person fulfills his obligation with first fruits; therefore Scripture says "in all your dwellings you shall eat unleavened bread" - this excludes first fruits, which are not eaten in all dwellings. These are the words of Rabbi Yose the Galilean. Rabbi Akiva says: "with unleavened bread and bitter herbs they shall eat it" (Numbers 9:11) - just as bitter herbs have no first-fruit counterpart, so matzah has no first-fruit counterpart. One might think a person fulfills his obligation with untithed produce that was not set right, or with first tithe from which the heave offering was not taken, or with second tithe and consecrated produce that were not redeemed; therefore Scripture says "leaven" - just as leaven is forbidden by its own nature, these are excluded, for their prohibition comes from another matter. And from where that the priests fulfill their obligation with heave offering in the provinces, and Israel with second tithe in Jerusalem? Scripture says "unleavened bread, unleavened bread" - Scripture made an inclusion. Rabbi Yose the Galilean says: a person does not fulfill his obligation with second tithe in Jerusalem, for it is said "bread of affliction" - this excludes second tithe, which is eaten only in joy. The Sages say: they do fulfill their obligation with second tithe in Jerusalem, for it is said "unleavened bread, unleavened bread" - Scripture made an inclusion. If so, why is "bread of affliction" said? To exclude matzah kneaded with wine, oil, and honey.