(Exodus 12:49) "One Torah shall there be for the citizen, etc." What is the intent of this? Is it not already written (Ibid. 48) "And he shall be as the citizen of the land"? From "And if there live with you a stranger and he would offer a Pesach to the L–rd," I would think that the proselyte is equated with the citizen only in respect to the Pesach. Whence do I derive (the same for) all the mitzvoth of the Torah? From "One Torah shall there be for the citizen and for the stranger."