A Day or Two Measured From One Hour to the Next

Yalkut Shimoni on Torah 335:2

"But if he survives a day or two" (Exodus 21:21). I might understand this according to its plain sense; Scripture therefore says, "but if a day." How can the two verses be reconciled, the "day" that is like "two days" and the "two days" that is like a "day"? It means a full twenty-four-hour period, measured from one hour to the corresponding hour. Rabbi Yose the Galilean says: I might understand it according to its plain sense; Scripture therefore says "but," which divides the matter. "He shall not be avenged," and so forth: this is what Rabbi Ishmael used to say, that Scripture speaks of a Canaanite slave. Rabbi Shimon ben Yochai says: why is this stated? Before it was said, I could have argued from logic, since his own ox is liable to death for killing his male or female slave, and another's ox is liable to death for killing his male or female slave, and he himself is liable to death for killing his male or female slave, and another person is liable to death for killing his male or female slave; if you have learned that no distinction is drawn between his own ox and another's ox regarding death for killing his slave, let us likewise draw no distinction between himself and another regarding death for killing his slave. Scripture therefore says, "he shall not be avenged, for he is his money." Scripture teaches that, even though no distinction was drawn between his own ox and another's ox regarding death for killing his slave, a distinction is drawn between himself and another regarding death for killing his slave. So what does Scripture teach by saying, "he shall not be avenged, for he is his money," and so on.

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