When Men Brawl and a Pregnant Woman Is Struck

"When men strive together" (Exodus 21:22) — does this make one who acts without intent like one who acts with intent? "When men strive and they strike a pregnant woman": the men are quarreling and they strike a pregnant woman. I know this only from "when men strive," where Scripture treats one who acts without intent like one who acts with intent. From where do I learn that even in "when men contend" we treat one who acts without intent like one who acts with intent? Scripture teaches "when men strive" and "when men contend" — striving is contending and contending is striving: just as in "when men strive" we treat the unintending like the intending, so in "when men contend" we treat the unintending like the intending. Here Scripture assigns damage and pain; elsewhere it assigns loss of livelihood and healing. From where do I learn to apply what is said of the one case to the other? Scripture teaches "when men strive" and "when men contend" — yet striving is contending and contending is striving. Rather, this is to apply what is said here to there and what is said there to here. "When men strive" — I know only of men. From where do I include two women, a woman and a man? Scripture teaches "he shall surely be punished," whether man or woman. Then why does Scripture say "men"? Men and not oxen. From this they said: an ox that struck the woman is exempt from the value of the offspring. Had it said only "they strike a woman and her child comes out," I might have said she must have two children and a husband. From where do I learn that even if she has a husband and no children, or children and no husband? Scripture teaches "they strike a pregnant woman" — in any case. Might I think the whole matter speaks only of a free woman? From where do I include the convert and the freed maidservant? Scripture teaches "they strike a pregnant woman" — in any case. "And no harm follows" — I might understand harm to the woman or harm to the offspring. Scripture teaches "he who smites a man" (verse 12), excluding the offspring. So what does "and no harm follows" mean? No harm to the woman and none to the offspring. "And no harm follows — he shall be punished": thus if there is harm there, he is not punished by fine. "He shall surely be punished": whether man or woman, he shall be punished with money or money's worth. "As the woman's husband shall lay upon him" — might he say a maneh and pay a maneh, or say a hundred maneh and pay a hundred maneh? Scripture teaches "and he shall give by the judges." If so, why is it said "as the woman's husband shall lay upon him"? It teaches that the value of the offspring belongs to the husband; and if she has no husband, it is hers.