This tells me only of a Hebrew maidservant. Whence do we derive (the same for) a Hebrew bondsman? It is, therefore, written (Devarim 15:12) "the Hebrew man or the Hebrew woman." The first is likened to one second. Just as the Hebrew woman does not go out with (loss of) organ prominences, so, the Hebrew man (But why is a verse needed for this?)
Why Would a Hebrew Slave Not Be Freed When Maimed by His Master
Mekhilta Tractate Nezikin 1:21