The Sojourner the Hired Servant and the Uncircumcised at the Table

"A sojourner and a hired servant shall not eat of it" (Exodus 12:45). "Sojourner" is a resident alien; "hired servant" is the gentile. Rabbi Eliezer says: "A sojourner and a hired servant shall not eat of it," why is it said? To derive from the Passover a ruling concerning the heave-offering, to disqualify the uncircumcised from it. Before one says, I have it by logic: if the lenient Passover disqualifies the uncircumcised, then the stringent heave-offering, is it not right that it should disqualify the uncircumcised? No; if you say so concerning the Passover, where Scripture limited the time of its eating for those who eat it, and therefore disqualified the uncircumcised from it, will you say the same of the heave-offering, where Scripture extended the time of its eating for those who eat it, [and] it is right that it should not disqualify the uncircumcised from it? Therefore Scripture teaches [the term] "sojourner and hired servant" regarding the Passover and "sojourner and hired servant" regarding the heave-offering, set free to be compared and to derive an analogy of equal phrasing: just as the "sojourner and hired servant" stated regarding the Passover disqualifies the uncircumcised, so too the "hired servant and sojourner" stated regarding the heave-offering disqualifies the uncircumcised. Rabbi Yitzchak says: "A sojourner and a hired servant shall not eat of it," why is it said? Has it not already been said, "No foreigner shall eat of it"? But if there were a circumcised Arab or a circumcised Gibeonite, I might hear that he is fit to eat the Passover; therefore Scripture teaches, "a sojourner and a hired servant shall not eat of it."