"And if one strikes his father and his mother": This tells me only of (one who strikes both) his father and his mother. Whence do I derive (liability for one who strikes) his father and not his mother, or (one who strikes) his mother and not his father? It follows, viz.: Just as with cursing—each one, individually (viz. Leviticus 20:9), so, with striking, each one, individually. No, this may be true of cursing, for which he is liable both for (cursing) the dead as well as the living, wherefore he is liable for each individually, as opposed to striking for which he is not liable for striking the dead as well as the living, wherefore he should not be liable for striking each individually. It is, therefore, written (Leviticus 24:21) "And one who strikes a man shall be put to death." Let it not, then, be written "And if one strikes his father and his mother he shall be put to death." (The meaning must be, then,) even if he strikes only one of them. These are the words of R. Yoshiyah.