"and the ox shall be stoned": Why is this stated? (i.e., it was stated already.) For if it were not stated, I would say (otherwise), viz.: Since he is put to death for killing his man-servant or his maid-servant, and another is put to death for killing his man-servant or his maid-servant, and his ox is put to death for killing his man-servant or his maid-servant, and the ox of another is put to death for killing his man-servant or his maid-servant—then if you have learned to make a distinction between his or another's killing his man-servant or his maid-servant (viz. Ibid. 21:21), then we should also make a distinction between his or another's ox killing his man-servant or his maid-servant; it is, therefore, written "thirty shekalim … and the ox shall be stoned" (i.e., no such distinction is made.)
and the ox shall be stoned" — Why is this stated
Curated by The Jewish Mythology Team
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