(Exodus 21:33) "And if a man open a pit": Why is this stated? It can be derived by reason, viz.: Since the ox is his possession and the pit is his possession, then if you have learned that he is liable for his ox, should he not be liable for his pit? No, this may be true of his ox, whose way it is to cause damage, as opposed to his pit, whose way it is not to go and cause and cause damage. It is, therefore, written "And if a man open a pit or if a man dig a pit." Because I have not been able to derive this by reason, it must be stated by itself.