And whence is it derived that in the absence of matzoh and maror one fulfills his obligation with the Pesach (Passover)? From "shall they eat it" (in any event). I might think that if one does not have a Pesach he fulfills his obligation with matzoh and maror, and that it follows, viz.: (The eating of the) Pesach is a positive commandment and matzoth and maror is a positive commandment. Just as in the absence of matzoh and maror one fulfills his obligation with the Pesach, so, in the absence of the Pesach one fulfills his obligation with matzoh and maror.