R. Eliezer says: The (non-) circumcision of one's servants does not prevent him from eating the Pesach (Passover). And what is the intent of "and you shall circumcise him, etc."? If one had uncircumcised servants, whence is it derived that if he wished to circumcise them and feed them (of the Pesach offering) he may do so? From "you shall circumcise him; then he may eat of it"—the servant. And thus do we find that he is permitted to have uncircumcised man-servants, it being written (Exodus 23:12) "and there be refreshed (on the Sabbath) the son of your maid-servant and the stranger" (a ger toshav).
Eliezer says — The (non-) circumcision of one's servants
Curated by The Jewish Mythology Team
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