(Exodus 15:9) "The foe said: I shall pursue, etc.": This appertains (chronologically) to the beginning of the parshah. Why is it written here? For "there is no before and after in the Torah." Similarly, (Isaiah 6:1) "In the year of the death of King Uzziahu, etc." This appertains to the beginning of the parshah. Why is it written here? For "there is no before and after in the Torah." Similarly, (Ezekiel 2:1) "Son of man, stand on your feet" (Some say [Ibid. 17:1] "Son of man, propose a riddle.") This appertains to the beginning of the parshah. Why is it written here? For "there is no before and after in the Torah." Similarly, (Jeremiah 2:2) "Go and call out in the ears of Jerusalem." This belongs in the beginning of the parshah. Why is it written here? For "there is no before and after in the Torah." Similarly, (Hoshea 10:1) "Israel is (like) a vine that has shed, etc." This appertains to the beginning of the parshah. Why is it written here? For "there is no before and after in the Torah." Similarly, (Koheleth 1:12) "I, Koheleth, was king over Israel in Jerusalem." This appertains to the beginning of the parshah. Why is it written here? For "there is no before and after in the Torah."