R. Eliezer says: What is the intent of "toshav and sachir"? (i.e., Is it not already written [(Exodus 12:43)] "No stranger may eat of it"?) To reason from Pesach (Passover) to terumah to forbid it to one who is uncircumcised. But even if it were not written, would I not know it a fortiori, viz.: If the Pesach offering, of lesser stringency, is forbidden to the uncircumcised, how much more so, terumah, of greater stringency!—No, this may be true of Pesach, whose permitted time of eating is limited, wherefore it is forbidden to the uncircumcised, as opposed to terumah, whose permitted time of eating is extended. It is, therefore, written "toshav and sachir" in respect to Pesach and an extra "toshav and sachir" in respect to terumah towards the formulation of a gezeirah shavah . Just as here, (the Pesach offering) is forbidden to the uncircumcised, so, there, terumah is forbidden to the uncircumcised.