These are the kinds of questions that ripple through the ancient texts.
In Bamidbar Rabbah, we find a fascinating exploration of the verse, "He heard the Voice speaking with him" (Numbers 7:89). It's not just any "voice," the text emphasizes, but "the Voice"—ha-kol in Hebrew. So, what exactly is this Voice?
The Midrash (rabbinic interpretive commentary) directs us to Psalm 29, where we find a powerful description: “The voice of the Lord is mighty; the voice of the Lord is majestic. The voice of the Lord breaks cedars… The voice of the Lord hews flames of fire. The voice of the Lord makes the desert tremble.” (Psalms 29:4-5, 7-9). We're not talking about a whisper here! This is the Voice of creation, a force of nature.
But here's the really intriguing part. Was this earth-shattering Voice broadcast for all to hear? The text immediately qualifies that. “The Lord spoke to him from the Tent of Meeting," it says, teaching us "that the Voice would cease and would not emerge outside the Tent." It was contained. Like the sound of the cherubim's wings in Ezekiel's vision, which "was heard until the outer courtyard" (Ezekiel 10:5), but then stopped, God's voice was localized. Intimate.
So, who did hear it? Was it just Moses? This is where the Midrash gets delightfully argumentative, in that characteristic rabbinic way. It systematically excludes groups: not all of Israel, not just the elders, not even just Aaron’s sons. “The verse states: ‘I will commune with you there’ (Exodus 25:22) – the communion was with you, but for all of them there was no communion.” It keeps narrowing the circle until only Moses remains.
But wait, there's more! Even Moses, the text implies, wasn't just casually addressed. The verse states: “[The Lord] called to Moses, and spoke” (Leviticus 1:1) – He had the call precede the speech." The Midrash then makes a beautiful point: "It is common courtesy that a person should not speak to another unless he calls him first." Even the Almighty follows protocols of respect.
Furthermore, the Midrash asks, was this calling unique to this specific instance? No! Rabbi Shimon explains that the seemingly extra word "and He spoke" includes even sayings and commands. But not pauses! Why pauses? "It was to provide respite for Moses to deliberate between one portion and another and between one matter and another." The Torah, even when divinely dictated, requires thoughtful consideration.
And how did God call out? "Moses, Moses!" Like Abraham, Jacob, and Samuel, the doubled name is "an expression of love and an expression of urging." Or, as the Midrash offers another interpretation, "he was Moses before He spoke with him, and Moses after He spoke with him." Moses wasn't changed by the encounter, he remained true to himself, a lesson in humility.
Ultimately, this passage from Bamidbar Rabbah isn't just about acoustics or divine etiquette. It’s about the nature of revelation itself. The Voice is powerful, yes, but it’s also intimate, directed, and respectful. And perhaps most importantly, it reminds us that even when we hear "the Voice," we still need to listen, reflect, and remain grounded in who we are. It's a powerful message, isn't it?
“He heard the Voice speaking with him” – was it, perhaps, a low-volume voice? The verse states: “The Voice.” It is not stated: “Voice,” but rather, “the Voice.” It was the Voice that is articulated in the verses. What is the Voice that is articulated in the verses? “The voice of the Lord is mighty; the voice of the Lord is majestic. The voice of the Lord breaks cedars.… The voice of the Lord hews flames of fire. The voice of the Lord makes the desert tremble; [the Lord makes the wilderness of Kadesh tremble.] The voice of the Lord causes deer to calve” (Psalms 29:4–5, 7–9). Is it, perhaps, that they would hear it from without? The verse states: “The Lord spoke to him from the Tent of Meeting” – it teaches that the Voice would cease and would not emerge outside the Tent. Similarly, you say: “The sound of the wings of the cherubs was heard until the outer courtyard” (Ezekiel 10:5). Is it, perhaps, because it was a low-volume sound? The verse states: “Like the sound of God Almighty when He speaks” (Ezekiel 10:5). If so, why is it stated: “Was heard until the outer courtyard”? It is, rather, that when it would reach the outer courtyard, it would cease. Rabbi Eliezer says: It says: “I will commune there with the children of Israel, and it will be sanctified with My glory” (Exodus 29:43) – I am destined to commune with them and to be sanctified through them. When? This is on the eighth day, as it is stated: “The entire people saw, raised their voice in praise, and fell upon their faces” (Leviticus 9:24); or, is it only to give them a place of communion for speech? The verse states: “I will commune with you” (Exodus 25:22) – communion was with you, but there was no communion for all of Israel. Perhaps, I will exclude Israel, who were not fit to ascend the mountain, but I will not exclude the elders, who were fit to ascend the mountain. Perhaps, I will exclude the elders, who were not seen in the speech with Moses, but I will not exclude Aaron’s sons, who were seen when the speech came to Moses. I will exclude Aaron’s sons, who were seen when the speech came to Moses, but I will not exclude Aaron, who communed in the speech with Moses. The verse states: “I will commune with you there” – the communion was with you, but for all of them there was no communion. Perhaps, I will exclude them from communion but will not exclude them from the speech. The verse states: “I will speak with you” (Exodus 25:22). Perhaps, I will exclude Israel but I will not exclude the elders. Perhaps, I will exclude the elders, but I will not exclude the sons of Aaron. Perhaps, I will exclude the sons of Aaron, but I will not exclude Aaron himself. The verse states: “To speak to you” (Exodus 29:42) – the speech was with you, but the speech was not with all of them. Is it, perhaps, that they would not hear the speech, but they would hear the voice? The verse states: “He heard the Voice speaking with him” – the Voice to him, “the Voice…with him.” Perhaps, I will exclude Israel, but I will not exclude the elders. Perhaps, I will exclude the elders, but I will not exclude the sons of Aaron. Perhaps, I will exclude the sons of Aaron, but I will not exclude Aaron himself. The verse states: A Voice to him.110The verse states, “the Voice speaking with him,” which the midrash interprets as meaning, “the Voice speaking to him.” I will exclude them all, but I will not exclude the ministering angels, as Moses was unable to enter their domain and their place until he is called. The verse states: The Voice to him, “the Voice…with him.” Moses would hear the Voice, but all these would not hear the Voice. Is it, perhaps, that the Holy One blessed be He would speak with him, but would not call him first? The verse states: “[The Lord] called to Moses, and spoke” (Leviticus 1:1) – He had the call precede the speech. It is common courtesy that a person should not speak to another unless he calls him first. It is only logical; speech is stated at the Tent of Meeting, and speech is stated at the bush. Just as regarding the speech stated at the bush, calling preceded speech, as it is stated: “God called to him from the midst of the bush” (Exodus 3:4), so too, [regarding] the speech stated at the Tent of Meeting, calling preceded speech. No; if you said regarding the bush that was the beginning of speech, would you say the same regarding the speech at the Tent of Meeting, which was not the beginning of speech? The speech at Mount Sinai will prove that it is not so, as it was not the beginning of speech, and calling preceded speech. No; if you said regarding Mount Sinai that was to all Israel, would you say this regarding the Tent of Meeting which was not to all Israel? You derive from a paradigm; the defining characteristic of the bush, which was the beginning of speech, is not like the defining characteristic of speech at Mount Sinai, which was not the beginning of speech, and the defining characteristic of Mount Sinai that was to all Israel, is not like the defining characteristic of the bush, which was not to all Israel. The common denominator between them is that they are speech from the Holy One to Moses, and calling preceded speech, so, everything that is speech from the Holy One to Moses, we will have calling precede speech. Maybe [we will claim], what is the common denominator between them? [It is] that they are speech, in fire, from the Holy One to Moses, and calling preceded speech; so too, everything that is speech, in fire, from the Holy One to Moses, calling will precede speech, excluding speech at the Tent of Meeting, which was not in fire. The verse states: “Called…and spoke”; calling preceded speech. Is it, perhaps, that there was calling only for this speech alone? From where is it derived regarding all the speech in the Torah? The verse states: “From the Tent of Meeting” (Leviticus 1:1) – anything that is from the Tent of Meeting, calling precedes speech. Is it, perhaps that there was calling only for speech alone;111Sometimes the Torah states that God spoke to Moses, [vaydaber], sometimes the phrase is: God said to Moses [vayomer], and sometimes the phrase is God commanded [vaytzav]. from where is it derived even for sayings (Leviticus 16:2) and commands (Numbers 28:2)? Rabbi Shimon said: The verse teaches: [Rather than writing,] “Speak,” [the verse writes,] “and He spoke” (Leviticus 1:1), to include even sayings and commands. Is it, perhaps, even for pauses? The verse states: “And He spoke” (Leviticus 1:1) – for speech there was calling, but there was no calling for pauses. What purpose did the pauses serve? It was to provide respite for Moses to deliberate between one portion and another and between one matter and another. The matter can be inferred a fortiori: If one who hears from the mouth of the Holy One blessed be He and speaks by means of the Divine Spirit is required to deliberate between one portion and another and between one matter and another, all the more so a layman who hears from a layman. From where is it derived that all the callings were, “Moses, Moses”? The verse states: “God called to him from the midst of the bush, and He said: Moses, Moses” (Exodus 3:4). From where is it derived that to each and every calling, he would answer: Here I am? The verse states: “He said: Moses, Moses, and he said: Here I am” (Exodus 3:4). The verse need not have stated: “And he said: [Here I am],” but rather, “and he answered: Here I am.” Why does the verse state: “And he said”? It teaches that to each calling, he would say: “Here I am.” “Moses, Moses” (Exodus 3:4); “Abraham, Abraham” (Genesis 22:11); “Jacob, Jacob” (Genesis 46:2); “Samuel, Samuel” (I Samuel 3:10) – it is an expression of love and an expression of urging. Alternatively, “Moses, Moses” – he was Moses before He spoke with him, and Moses after He spoke with him.112Moses did not become arrogant because God spoke to him.
